An information security ____
position focuses on the administration and management of plans, policies, and
people.
manager
Match the following terms to
the appropriate definitions.
something that has value asset
|
||||
intended to cause panic,
provoke violence, or result in a financial catastrophe cyberterrorism
|
||||
plans and policies
established by an organization to ensure that people correctly use the
products procedures
|
||||
to take advantage of a
vulnerability exploit
|
||||
a person who has been
hired to break into a computer and steal information computer
spy
|
||||
the likelihood that a
threat agent will exploit a vulnerability risk
|
||||
an event or action that
might defeat security measures in place and result in a loss threat
|
||||
a person or thing that has
the power to carry out a threat threat agent
|
||||
a weakness that allows a
threat agent to bypass security vulnerability
|
||||
The position of ____ is
generally an entry-level position for a person who has the necessary technical
skills.
security technician
____ attacks are responsible
for half of all malware delivered by Web advertising.
Fake antivirus
____ ensures that
information is correct and that no unauthorized person or malicious software
has altered that data.
Integrity
In a ____ attack, attackers
can attackers use hundreds or thousands of computers in an attack against a
single computer or network.
distributed
____ involves stealing
another person’s personal information, such as a Social Security number, and
then using the information to impersonate the victim, generally for financial
gain.
Identity theft
The single most expensive
malicious attack was the 2000 ____, which cost an estimated $8.7 billion.
Love Bug
A study by Foote Partners
showed that security certifications earn employees ____ percent more pay than
their uncertified counterparts.
10 to 14
The term ____ is frequently
used to describe the tasks of securing information that is in a digital format.
information security
____ are a loose-knit
network of attackers, identity thieves, and financial fraudsters.
Cybercriminals
In information security, a
loss can be ____.
all of the above
Recent employment trends
indicate that employees with security certifications are in high demand.
True
____ ensures that the
individual is who they claim to be (the authentic or genuine person) and not an
imposter.
Authentication
What is the maximum fine for
those who wrongfully disclose individually identifiable health information with
the intent to sell it?
$250,000
Business ____ theft involves
stealing proprietary business information such as research for a new drug or a
list of customers that competitors are eager to acquire.
data
The CompTIA Security+
Certification is aimed at an IT security professional with the recommended
background of a minimum of two years experience in IT administration, with a
focus on security.
True
In information security, an
example of a threat agent can be ____.
both a and b
a force of nature such as a
tornado that could destroy computer equipment
a
virus that attacks a computer network
Targeted attacks against
financial networks, unauthorized access to information, and the theft of
personal information is sometimes known as ____.
cybercrime
Describe the security principle
of simplicity.
Answer:
it
ensures that the security implimented will provide assurance for other people
to understand it. creating simple solutions to the probem means it will
create the least amount of security issues.
|
21
Marks: 1
The ____ Act requires banks
and financial institutions to alert customers of their policies and practices
in disclosing customer information.
Gramm-Leach-Bliley
The demand for IT
professionals who know how to secure networks and computers is at an all-time
low. FALSE
In a general sense,
assurance may be defined as the necessary steps to protect a person or property
from harm.
False
Weakness in software can be
more quickly uncovered and exploited with new software tools and techniques.
True
____ ensures that only
authorized parties can view information.
Confidentiality
Information security is
achieved through a combination of what three entities? Provide at least one
example of each entity.
confidentiality,
integrity and availability
confidentiality
- only teachers are allowed to see the answers on the exam
integrity
- teacher have to know that the grades he/she on her computer screen is
legitimate and wasn't altered.
availability - a teacher who is
authorized to access information on a certain group of students needs to have
an access.
What is another name for
unsolicited e-mail messages?
spam
Under the ____, health care
enterprises must guard protected health information and implement policies and
procedures to safeguard it, whether it be in paper or electronic format.
HIPAA
What is a worm?
worm
is a malicious program that replicates itself in order to spread to other
computers through network connectivity.
The two types of malware
that have the primary objective of spreading are ____.
viruses and worms
____ involves horizontally
separating words, although it is still readable by the human eye.
Word splitting
Removing a rootkit from an
infected computer is extremely difficult.
True
A
____________________ is either a small hardware device or a program that
monitors each keystroke a user types on the computer’s keyboard.
keylogger
A macro virus takes
advantage of the “____________________” relationship between the application
and the operating system.
trust
The most popular attack
toolkit, which has almost half of the attacker toolkit market is ____.
MPack
A ____ virus is loaded into
random access memory (RAM) each time the computer is turned on and infects
files that are opened by the user or the operating system.
resident
A ____ is a series of
instructions that can be grouped together as a single command and are often
used to automate a complex set of tasks or a repeated series of tasks.
macro
Software keyloggers are
programs that silently capture all keystrokes, including passwords and
sensitive information.
True
A ____ virus infects program
executable files.
program
How does a rootkit work?
It hides the existence of
certain processes or programs from normal method of detection and enable
continued privileged access to a computer.
Viruses and worms are said
to be self-____.
replicating
A ____
refers to an undocumented, yet benign, hidden feature, that launches by
entering a set of special commands, key combinations, or mouse clicks.
Easter egg
____ uses “speckling” and
different colors so that no two spam e-mails appear to be the same.
Geometric variance
A ____ is a program
advertised as performing one activity but actually does something else.
Trojan
____ is a software program
that delivers advertising content in a manner that is unexpected and unwanted
by the user.
Adware
Unlike other malware, a ____
is heavily dependent upon the user for its survival.
virus
____ is an image spam that
is divided into multiple images.
GIF layering
____ is when an attacker
tricks users into giving out information or performing a compromising action.
Social engineering
A ____ virus infects the
Master Boot Record of a hard disk drive.
boot
Like a virus, a worm needs
the user to perform an action such as starting a program or opening an e-mail
attachment to start the infection.
False
A ____ is a computer program
or a part of a program that lies dormant until it is triggered by a specific
logical event.
logic bomb
A ____ is a set of software
tools used by an attacker to hide the actions or presence of other types of
malicious software, such as Trojans, viruses, or worms.
rootkit
A computer ____ is malicious
computer code that reproduces itself on the same computer.
virus
In a ____ infection,
a virus injects itself into the program’s executable code instead of at the end
of the file.
Swiss cheese
There are almost ____
different Microsoft Windows file extensions that could contain a virus.
70
A ____ virus
adds a program to the operating system that is a malicious copycat version to a
legitimate program.
companion
A client-side attack that
results in a user’s computer becoming compromised just by viewing a Web page
and not even clicking any content is known as a ____.
drive-by-download
____ is designed to display
data, with the primary focus on how the data looks.
HTML
The SQL injection statement
____ determines the names of different fields in a database.
whatever’ AND email IS NULL; --
The SQL injection statement
____ erases the database table.
whatever’; DROP TABLE members;
--
A ____ attack is similar to
a passive man-in-the-middle attack.
replay
Users who access a Web
server are usually restricted to the ____ directory.
root
____ is an attack in which
an attacker attempts to impersonate the user by using his session token.
Session hijacking
Because the XSS is a widely
known attack, the number of Web sites that are vulnerable is very small.
False
HTML is a markup language
that uses specific ____ embedded in brackets.
tags
The default root directory
of the Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) Web server is ____.
C:\Inetpub\ wwwroot
____ is for the transport
and storage of data, with the focus on what the data is.
XML
Web application attacks are
considered ____ attacks.
server-side
The expression ____ up one
directory level.
../ traverses
Match each term with the
correct statement below.
An attack involving using
a third party to gain access rights. Transitive
access
|
||
Created from the Web site
that a user is currently viewing First-party cookie
|
||
Takes advantage of
vulnerability in the Web application program or the Web server software so
that a user can move from the root directory to other restricted directories Directory traversal attack
|
||
Exploits previously
unknown vulnerabilities so victims have no time to prepare or defend against
the attacks. Zero day attack
|
||
Targets vulnerabilities in
client applications that interact with a compromised server or process
malicious data Client-side attack
|
||
The ability to move to
another directory could allow an unauthorized user to view confidential files
or even enter commands to execute on a server Command injection
|
||
Exploiting a vulnerability
in software to gain access to resources that the user would normally be
restricted from obtaining Privilege escalation
|
||
Injects scripts into a Web
application server that will then direct attacks at clients Cross-site scripting (XSS) attack
|
||
Privileges that are
granted to users to access hardware and software resources Access rights
|
Because of the minor role it
plays, DNS is never the focus of attacks.
False
The predecessor to today’s
Internet was a network known as ____________________.
ARPAnet
The “omnipresence” of access
from any computer with only an Internet connection and a Web browser has made
Web applications an essential element of organizations today.
True
The SQL injection statement
____ discovers the name of a table.
whatever’ AND 1=(SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM tabname); --
When DNS servers exchange
information among themselves it is known as a ____.
zone transfer
The Chinese government uses
_____ to prevent Internet content that it considers unfavorable from reaching
its citizenry.
DNS poisoning
For a Web server’s Linux
system, the default root directory is typically ____.
/var/www
The ____ is part of an HTTP
packet that is composed of fields that contain the different characteristics of
the data being transmitted.
HTTP header
The SQL injection statement
____ finds specific users.
whatever’ OR full_name LIKE
‘%Mia%’
Although traditional network
security devices can block traditional network attacks, they cannot always
block Web application attacks.
True
When TCP/IP was developed,
the host table concept was expanded to a hierarchical name system for matching
computer names and numbers known as the ____. DNS
____ is a language used to
view and manipulate data that is stored in a relational database.
SQL
____ substitutes DNS
addresses so that the computer is automatically redirected to another device.
DNS poisoning
All Web traffic is based on
the ____________________ protocol.
HTTP
List three of the most
common Web application attacks.
sql
injection
cross
site scripting
client side attacks
ARP poisoning is successful
because there are few authentication procedures to verify ARP requests and
replies.
False
Describe a cross-site
scripting (XSS) attack.
XSS is not an attack to steal or
deface a web application server. It uses the server as a platform to access
other computers accessing the server.
List two types of hardening
techniques.
Protecting accounts with
passwords
Disabling any unnecessary accounts
Disabling all unnecessary services
Protecting management interfaces and applications
Disabling any unnecessary accounts
Disabling all unnecessary services
Protecting management interfaces and applications
While the code for a program
is being written, it is being analyzed by a ____.
code review
Released in 1995, one of the
first tools that was widely used for penetration testing was ____.
SATAN
If port 20 is available,
then an attacker can assume that FTP is being used.
True
A ____ is a network set up
with intentional vulnerabilities.
honeynet
____ is a means by which an
organization can transfer the risk to a third party who can demonstrate a
higher capability at managing or reducing risks.
Outsourcing
____________________ for
organizations are intended to identify vulnerabilities and alert network
administrators to these problems.
Vulnerability scanners
____ is a comparison of the
present state of a system compared to its baseline.
Baseline reporting
Describe a penetration
testing report.
Penetration testing is designed
to exploit any weaknesses in systems that are vulnerable. This test relies on
the ability, skills and knowledge of the tester.
List and describe the
elements that make up a security posture.
Initial baseline configuration.
A baseline is the standard security checklist
against which systems are evaluated for a security posture. A baseline outlines the major security considerations for a system and becomes the starting point for solid security. It is critical that a strong baseline be created when developing a security posture.
Continuous security monitoring. Continual observation of systems and networks
through vulnerability scanning and penetration testing can provide valuable
information regarding the current state of preparedness.
Remediation. As vulnerabilities are exposed through monitoring, there must be a plan in place to address the vulnerabilities before they are exploited by attackers.
against which systems are evaluated for a security posture. A baseline outlines the major security considerations for a system and becomes the starting point for solid security. It is critical that a strong baseline be created when developing a security posture.
Continuous security monitoring. Continual observation of systems and networks
through vulnerability scanning and penetration testing can provide valuable
information regarding the current state of preparedness.
Remediation. As vulnerabilities are exposed through monitoring, there must be a plan in place to address the vulnerabilities before they are exploited by attackers.
A security weakness is known
as a ____.
vulnerability
A ____ outlines the major
security considerations for a system and becomes the starting point for solid
security.
baseline
A ____ means
that the application or service assigned to that port is listening for any
instructions.
open port
List and describe the three
categories that TCP/IP divides port numbers into.
Well-known port numbers
(0–1023). Reserved for the most universal applications
Registered port numbers (1024–49151). Other applications that are not as widely used
Dynamic and private port numbers (49152 – 65535). Available for use by any
application
Registered port numbers (1024–49151). Other applications that are not as widely used
Dynamic and private port numbers (49152 – 65535). Available for use by any
application
A ____
indicates that no process is listening at this port.
closed port
A ____ is a computer
typically located in an area with limited security and loaded with software and
data files that appear to be authentic, yet they are actually imitations of
real data files.
honeypot
A
____________________ box test is one in which some limited information has been
provided to the tester.
gray
A healthy security posture
results from a sound and workable strategy toward managing risks.
True
____ is the probability that
a risk will occur in a particular year.
ARO
Match each term with the
correct statement below.
Eliminating as many
security risks as possible and make the system more secure Hardening
|
||
A systematic and
methodical evaluation of the exposure of assets to attackers, forces of
nature, or any other entity that is potentially harmful Vulnerability assessment
|
||
Designed to actually
exploit any weaknesses in systems that are vulnerable Penetration testing
|
||
Identifying what the
pressures are against a company Threat evaluation
|
||
Identifying how
susceptible the current protection is Vulnerability
appraisal
|
||
Identify what damages
could result from the threats Risk assessment
|
||
Identify what needs to be
protected Asset identification
|
||
Identify what to do about
threats Risk mitigation
|
||
An automated software
search through a system for any known security weaknesses Vulnerability scan
|
List and describe two common
uses for a protocol analyzer.
it captures packets to decode
and analyze contents
The ____ for software is the
code that can be executed by unauthorized users.
attack surface
List four things that a
vulnerability scanner can do.
Identify vulnerability
alert network administrators
alert network administrators
In an empty box test, the
tester has no prior knowledge of the network infrastructure that is being
tested.
False
When performing a
vulnerability assessment, many organizations use ____ software to search a system
for any port vulnerabilities.
port scanner
The end product of a
penetration test is the penetration ____.
test report
A ____
examines the current security in a passive method.
vulnerability scan
The goal of ____ is to
better understand who the attackers are, why they attack, and what types of
attacks might occur.
threat modeling
Discuss the purpose of OVAL.
OVAL is designed to promote open
and publicly available security content. It also standardizes the transfer of
information across different security tools and services.
Most vulnerability scanners
maintain a
____________________ that categorizes and describes the vulnerabilities that it
can detect.
database
When using a black box test,
many testers use ____________________ tricks to learn about the network
infrastructure from inside employees.
social engineering
A ____________________
scan uses various techniques to avoid detection.
stealth
The first step in a
vulnerability assessment is to determine the assets that need to be protected.
True
Discuss one type of asset
that an organization might have.
Database
Describe the purpose of a
honeypot.
Honeypot's purpose is to trick
attackers into revealing their attack techniques.
A ____ in effect takes a
snapshot of the current security of the organization.
vulnerability appraisal
A ____ tester has an
in-depth knowledge of the network and systems being tested, including network
diagrams, IP addresses, and even the source code of custom applications.
white box
The ____ is the expected
monetary loss every time a risk occurs.
SLE
A ____ is
hardware or software that captures packets to decode and analyze its contents.
protocol analyzer
When a security hardware
device fails or a program aborts, which state should it go into?
it will either go into a
fail-safe state or a fail-open state.
Vulnerability scans are
usually performed from outside the security perimeter.
False
____ is the proportion of an
asset’s value that is likely to be destroyed by a particular risk.
EF
Keyed entry locks are much
more difficult to defeat than deadbolt locks.
True
In ____, a virtualized
environment is created that simulates the central processing unit (CPU) and
memory of the computer.
heuristic detection
ID badges that can be
detected by a proximity reader are often fitted with tiny radio ____ tags.
RFID
Identify one of the
capabilities of DLP agents.
Scan different types of storage
devices (USB flash drive, card readers, hard disk drives,
CDs, and DVDs).
Read inside compressed (ZIP)
files and binary files (such as Microsoft Office non-
XML files).
Monitor multiple protocols
(including HTTP, SMTP, POP, IMAP, FTP, and Telnet).
When a policy violation is
detected by the DLP agent, it is reported back to the DLP server.
True
____________________ locks
keep a record of when the door was opened and by which code.
Cipher
Cipher locks are the same as
combination padlocks.
True
The signal from an ID badge
is detected as the owner moves near a ____, which receives the signal.
proximity reader
____ are combination locks
that use buttons which must be pushed in the proper sequence to open the door.
Cipher locks
____ is defined as a
security analysis of the transaction within its approved context.
Content inspection
Describe RFID tags.
RFID tags are tags that are
affixed inside the ID badge and can be read by RFID proximity reader.
Describe a mantrap.
A mantrap is designed to
separate nonsecured area from a secured area.
____ use multiple infrared
beams that are aimed across a doorway and positioned so that as a person walks
through the doorway some beams are activated.
Tailgate sensors
In Microsoft Windows, a ____
is a collection of security configuration settings.
security template
An anti-climb collar is a
____ that extends horizontally for up to 3 feet (1 meter) from the pole to
prevent anyone from climbing.
spiked collar
Passive tags have ranges
from about 1/3 inch to ____ feet.
19
Using video cameras to
transmit a signal to a specific and limited set of receivers is called ____.
CCTV
A ____ is software that is a
cumulative package of all security updates plus additional features.
service pack
Instead of using a key or
entering a code to open a door, a user can display a ____ to identify herself.
physical token
Each host (desktop, wireless
laptop, smartphone, gateway server) runs a local application called a ____,
which is sent over the network to the devices and runs as an OS service.
DLP agent
What are the three states of
data that DLP typically examines?
data in use
data in motion
data at rest
data in motion
data at rest
A ____ can be inserted into
the security slot of a portable device and rotated so that the cable lock is
secured to the device, while a cable connected to the lock can then be secured
to a desk or immobile object.
cable lock
____ is a system of security
tools that is used to recognize and identify data that is critical to the
organization and ensure that it is protected.
DLP
A ____ is designed to
separate a nonsecured area from a secured area.
mantrap
Match each term with the
correct statement below.
Include a keyed cylinder
in both the outside and inside knobs so that a key in either knob locks or
unlocks both at the same time Store entry double
cylinder locks
|
||
Lock the door from the
inside but cannot be unlocked from the outside Patio
locks
|
||
Latch a door closed yet do
not lock; typically used on hall and closet doors Passage
locks
|
||
Most common type of door
lock for keeping out intruders, but its security is minimal Standard keyed entry locks
|
||
The outside is always
locked, entry is by key only, and the inside lever is always unlocked Storeroom locks
|
||
Use a key to open the lock
from the outside Keyed entry locks
|
||
Lock the door but have
access to unlock from the outside via a small hole Privacy
locks
|
||
Extends a solid metal bar
into the door frame for extra security Deadbolt locks
|
||
The outside can be locked
or unlocked, and the inside lever is always unlocked Classroom
locks
|
What are the three most
important elements to secure in any information technology setting?
Host, Applications and Data
____________________
security is the physical security that specifically involves protecting the
hardware of the host system, particularly portable laptops, netbooks, and
tablet computers that can easily be stolen.
Hardware
____________________ paint
is a nontoxic petroleum gel-based paint that is thickly applied and does not
harden, making any coated surface very difficult to climb.
Anti-climb
Explain remote
wipe/sanitation.
Remote wipe/sanitation provide
security to a stolen or lost device by remotely erasing or resetting it to
factory defaults. This then can prevent sensitive data to fall into the hands
of third-party.
Data, once restricted to
papers in the office filing cabinet, now flows freely both in and out of
organizations, among employees, customers, contractors, and business partners.
True
A ____ is
hardware or software that is designed to prevent malicious packets from
entering or leaving computers.
firewall
Securing a restricted area
by erecting a barrier is called ____.
fencing
A
____________________ is a record or list of individuals who have permission to
enter a secure area, the time that they entered, and the time they left the
area.
access list
Securing the host involves
protecting the physical device itself, securing the operating system software
on the system, using security-based software applications, and monitoring logs.
True
Identify the five steps in
the process to secure operating system software.
Develop the security policy.
Perform host software baselining.
Configure operating system security and settings.
Deploy the settings.
Implement patch management
Perform host software baselining.
Configure operating system security and settings.
Deploy the settings.
Implement patch management
Explain how tailgate sensors
work.
Tailgate sensors use multiple
infrared beams that are aimed across
a doorway and positioned so that as a person walks through the
doorway some beams are activated; the other beams are then activated
a fraction of a second later.
a doorway and positioned so that as a person walks through the
doorway some beams are activated; the other beams are then activated
a fraction of a second later.
____ can be prewired for
electrical power as well as wired network connections.
Locking cabinets
A ____ is an independently
rotating large cups affixed to the top of a fence prevent the hands of
intruders from gripping the top of a fence to climb over it.
roller barrier
List three recommended key
management procedures to achieve the best security when using keyed door locks.
Change locks immediately upon
loss or theft of keys.
Inspect all locks on a regular basis.
Issue keys only to authorized persons.
Inspect all locks on a regular basis.
Issue keys only to authorized persons.
____________________ security
involves restricting access to the areas in which equipment is located.
Physical
A ____ outlines the major
security considerations for a system and becomes the starting point for solid
security.
baseline
NAT replaces a private IP
address with a public IP address.
Describe how NAC works.
It
examines the current state of a
system or network device before it is allowed to connect to the network. Its
purpose is to prevent computers with suboptimal security from potentially
infecting other computers to the network.
List and describe two
advantages of a proxy server.
It can intercept malware before it reaches the client.
It
hides the IP address of the client systems inside the secure network
List and describe three
features of Internet content filters.
URL and content filtering -
Network administrators can block access to specific Web sites or
allow only
specific Web sites to be accessed, while all others are
blocked;
blocking can be based on keywords, URL patterns, or lists of
prohibited sites
Malware
filtering - Filters can assess if a Web page contains any malicious elements or
exhibits any
malicious behavior, and then flag questionable pages with
a warning message
Prohibit file downloads -
Executable programs (.exe), audio or video files (.mp3, .avi, .mpg), and
archive files (.zip, .rar) can be
blocked
Profiles - Content-specific Web
sites, such as adult, hacking, and virus-infected
Web sites, can be blocked
Detailed reporting -
Administrators can monitor Internet traffic and identify users who
attempt to foil the filters
Security is enhanced by
subnetting a single network into multiple smaller subnets in order to isolate
groups of hosts.
TRUE
Layer 5 of the OSI model is
the ____ layer.
Session layer
A ____ can block malicious
content in “real time” as it appears without first knowing the URL of a
dangerous site.
Web
security gateway
____ is a technique that
allows private IP addresses to be used on the public Internet.
NAT
What are the two TCP/IP
protocols used by e-mail systems to send and receive messages?
POP3 and SMTP
____ is typically used on
home routers that allow multiple users to share one IP address received from an
Internet service provider (ISP).
PAT
____ switches are connected
directly to the devices on a network.
Workgroup
A ____ does not serve
clients, but instead routes incoming requests to the correct server.
Reverse proxy
Describe the difference
between an active NIDS and a passive NIDS.
The difference between an active
and passive NIDS is that a passive NIDS will simply sound an alarm and log the
event if an attack is detected while active NIDS will sound an alarm and at the
same time it will take action.
____ is a technology that
can help to evenly distribute work across a network.
Load balancing
Internet content filters monitor Internet traffic and block
access to preselected Web sites and files.
A ____ is the end of the
tunnel between VPN devices.
endpoint
____ keeps a record of the
state of a connection between an internal computer and an external device and
then makes decisions based on the connection as well as the conditions.
Stateful
packet filtering
Workgroup switches must work
faster than core switches.
FALSE
IP addresses are ____-bit addresses.
32
A ____ is a standard network
device for connecting multiple Ethernet devices together by using twisted-pair
copper or fiber-optic cables in order to make them function as a single network
segment.
hub
A ____ is a network device
that can forward packets across computer networks.
router
Describe the difference
between subnetting and VLANs.
Subnets are subdivisions
of IP address classes (Class A, B, or C) and allow a single Class A, B, or C
network to be used instead of multiple networks. VLANs are devices that are
connected logically rather than physically, either through the port to which
they are connected or by their media access control (MAC) address.
Layer 3 of the OSI model is
the ____ layer.
Network
Describe all-in-one network security
appliances.
All-in-one network appliances
provides a second level of protection by encrypting the contents. This means
that even if the attackers penetrate the network and steal documents they must
still uncover the key to unlock the encrypted documents.
In order to allow untrusted
outside users access to resources such as Web servers, most networks employ a
____.
DMZ
Examining network traffic, activity,
transactions, or behavior and looking for well-known patterns is known as
____-based monitoring
signature
____________________ work
occasionally or regularly from a home office.
Telecommuters
____ IP addresses are IP
addresses that are not assigned to any specific user or organization.
Private
Describe how VLAN
communication takes place.
If multiple
devices in the same VLAN are connected to the same switch, then the switch
itself can handle the transfer of packets to the members of the VLAN group.
However, if VLAN members on one switch need to communicate with members
connected to another switch, then a special “tagging” protocol must be used,
either a proprietary protocol or the vendor-neutral IEEE 802.1Q. These special
protocols add a field to the packet that “tags” it as belonging to the VLAN.
A ____ encrypts all data
that is transmitted between the remote device and the network.
VPN
A basic level of security
can be achieved through using the security features found in network hardware.
False
____ provides remote users
with the same access and functionality as local users through a VPN or dial-up
connection.
Remote
access
List and describe three
advantages to subnetting.
Decreased
network traffic - Broadcasts to network hosts are generally limited to
individual subnets
Flexibility -
The number of subnets and hosts on each subnet can be customized for each
organization
and easily changed as necessary
Improved
troubleshooting - Tracing a problem on a subnet is faster and easier than on a
single large network
Improved
utilization of addresses Because networks can be subdivided, it generally reduces
the number of wasted
IP addresses
Minimal
impact on external routers - Because only routers within the organization are
concerned with routing
between
subnets, routers outside the organization do not have to be updated to reflect
changes
Reflection of
physical network - Hosts can be grouped together into subnets that more
accurately reflect the way
they are organized in the
physical network
A ____ is a computer or an
application program that intercepts a user request from the internal secure
network and then processes that request on behalf of the user.
proxy
server
Match each term with the
correct statement below.
Segmenting a network by
separating devices into logical groups VLAN
|
||
Functions as a separate
network that rests outside the secure network perimeter DMZ
|
||
A software-based
application that runs on a local host computer that can detect an attack as
it occurs HIDS
|
||
Each outgoing packet is
given a different IP address NAT
|
||
Each packet is given the
same IP address but a different TCP port number. PAT
|
||
Refers to any combination
of hardware and software that enables remote users to access a local internal
network Remote Access
|
||
Allows an IP address to be
split anywhere within its 32 bits Subnet
addressing
|
||
Used to classify standard
network devices based on their function OSI
Model
|
||
A reference set of data
against which operational data is compared Baseline
|
The key to the OSI reference
model is layers.
The OSI model breaks
networking steps down into a series of six layers.
False
A ____ allows scattered
users to be logically grouped together even though they may be attached to
different switches.
VLAN
Each operation in a
computing environment starts with a ____.
system call
Behavior-based monitoring
attempts to overcome the limitations of both anomaly-based monitoring and
signature-based monitoring by being more adaptive and proactive instead of
reactive.
true
Networks are usually
segmented by using Switches to divide the
network into a hierarchy.
Discuss the two advantages
that NAT provides.
First,
it masks the IP addresses of internal devices. An attacker who captures the
packet on the Internet cannot determine the actual IP address of the sender.
Without that address, it is more difficult to identify and attack a computer.
Second, NAT allows multiple devices to share a smaller number of public IP
addresses.
cache ------ temporary storage area
classful addressing ------ IP addresses that
are split between the network and hosp portions set on the boundaries between
the bytes
convergence ------ unifying voice and data
traffic over a single internet protocol network
core switches ------ switches that reside at
the top of the hierarchy and carry traffic between switches
DMZ (demilitarized zone ------ separate
network that sits outside the secure network perimeter, often used to provide
"outside services" such as Web service and e-mail
honey pot ------ server intended to trap or
trick attacker
HIPS (host intrusion prevention system) ------
intrusion prevention systems that are installed on local systems
Integrated network security hardware ------
hardware device that integrates multipurpose security multipurpose security
appliances with a traditional network device such as a switch or router
internet
content filters ------ technology to monitor internet traffic and block
access to preselected Web sites and files
IPS (intrusion prevention system) ------
system that finds malicious traffic and deals with it immediately
IP telephony ------ adding digital voice
clients and new voice applications onto the IP network
multiplexed ------ services such as voice,
video, and data combined and transported under a universal format
NAC (network access control) ------ technology
that examines the current state of a system and corrects any deficiencies
before it is allowed to connect to the network
NAT (network address translation) ------
technology that hides the IP address of
network devices from attackers
NIDS (network intrusion detection system)
------ system to monitor and possibly prevent attempts to attack a local system
NIPS (network intrusion prevention system)
------ intrusion prevention systems that work to protect the entire network and
all devices that are connected to it
out of band ------ using a separate data
stream
PAT (port address translation) ------
variation of network address translation that assigns a different TCP port
number to each packet
private addresses ------ IP address that are
not assigned to any specific user or organization but can be used by any user on the private
internal network
production honeypot ------ honeypot that
isused mainly by organization to capture limited information regarding attacks
on that organization honeypot
proxy server ------ computer system or an application program that intercepts
internal user requests and than processes that request on behalf of the user
research honeypot ------ honeypot that is more
complex and used primarily by research,military, and government organizations
reverse proxy ------ device that routes
incoming requests to the correct server
rule base ------ the rules that establishes
what action the firewall should take when it receives a packet
stateful packet filtering ------ firewall
technology that keeps a record of the state of a connection between an internal
computer and an external server and then makes decisions based on the
connection as well as the rule base
stateless packet filtering ------ firewall
technology that looks at the incoming packet and permits or denies it based
strictly on the rule base
subnet addressing ------ IP addressing
technique in which an IP address can be split anywhere with its 32 bits
system call ------ an instruction that
interrupts the program being executed and request a service from the operating
system
virtual Lan
(VLAN) ------ segmenting a network by separating devices into logical
groups
VoIP voice over IP ------ technology that
places voice traffic onto an IP network
work group switches ------ switches that are
connected directly to the device on the network
1. A network
tap____________________.
A. has been made
obsolete by software protocol analyzers
B. is a separate device that can be installed between other
network devices to monitor traffic
C. stands for
“Technology Account Protocol” (TAP)
D. is the same as a
wireless access point
2. Each of the
following is a characteristic of a weak password except_________.
A. Using a common
dictionary word
B. Using personally
identifiable information
C. A password that is long
D. Recording the
password on paper
3. A(n) _____ is an
account on a device that is created automatically to aid in installation and
should be deleted once that is completed.
A. default account
B. back door
C. User Installation
Account (UIA)
D. privilege account
4. A(n) _____ attack
attempts to consume network resources so that the devices cannot respond to
legitimate requests.
A. system overflow
B. Denial
of service
C. reverse ping
D. ARP spoofing
5. Wireless denial of
service attacks are successful because wireless LANs use the
protocol____________.
A. Carrier
Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)
B. Carrier Sense
Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)
C. time slot
allocation (TSA)
D. implicit ACK frame
acknowledgment protocol (IAFAP)
6. A man-in-the-middle
attack_________________.
A. can be defeated by
using the TCP/IP protocol
B. intercepts legitimate communication and forges a
fictitious response
C. is only found on a
wireless network
D. are always passive
7. The difference
between a replay attack and a man-in-the-middle attack is________.
A. Replay attacks are
always faster
B. A replay attack makes a copy of the transmission before
sending it to the recipient
C. A man-in-the-middle
attack can be prevented yet a replay attack cannot
D. Replay attacks are
no longer used today
8. An example of an
antiquated protocol that has been replaced by a more secure version
is______________.
A. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) Version 2
B. Address Resolution
Protocol
C. Internet Protocol
D. ARPA
9. Where does the
TCP/IP host table name system for a local device store a symbolic name to
Internet Protocol address mappings?
A. On the Domain Name
System (DNS) server
B. In a local hosts file
C. In the ARP cache
D. On a network file
server
10. Attackers take
advantage of Domain Name System _____ to send fraudulent DNS entries.
A. area requests
B. domain resource
sharing (DRS)
C. Internet name
system transfer protocol
D. zone transfers
11. A more secure
version of the Berkeley Internet Name Domain software is______.
A. Total Secure Domain
Name System Zone (TSDNSZ)
B. Secure BIND
C. MX Secure (MXS)
D. DNSSEC
12. _____ is used for
Ethernet local area networks to resolve Internet Protocol addresses.
A. ARP
B. P2P
C. CCSIP
D. I4PR
13. An attack that
takes advantage of the order of arrival of TCP packets is_______.
A. IP forwarding
B. FTP spoofing
C. IP resolution
D. TCP/IP hijacking
14. War driving
exploits _____, which is the wireless access point sending out information
about its presence and configuration settings.
A. scanning
B. beaconing
C. location
frame stamping
D. SGP mapping
15. A group of
Bluetooth piconets in which connections exist between different piconets is
called a(n)__________.
A. scatternet
B. OPNET
C. double piconet (DP)
D. slavenet
16. _____ is the
unauthorized access of information from a wireless device through a Bluetooth
connection.
A. Blue jacking
B. Bluetooth snatching
C. Bluetooth spoofing
D. Blue snarfing
17. In a(n) _____
attack the attacker overflows a switch’s address table with fake media access
control (MAC) addresses and makes the switch act like a hub, sending packets to
all devices.
A. switch
flooding
B. MAC ARP
impersonation
C. Address Domain
Resolution (ADR)
D. switch
advertisement
18. A back door can be
created by each of the following except______________.
A. a programmer of the
software on the device
B. a virus
C. spam
D. a Trojan horse
19. Using _____, an
attacker attempts to gather information to map the entire internal network of
the organization supporting the DNS server.
A. DNS transfer
B. DNS spoofing
C. Zone transfer
imaging (ZTI)
D. Name resolution
spoofing
20. Each of the
following could be the result of an ARP poisoning attack except________.
A. Change entries in a DNS zone transfer table
B. Steal data intended
for another device
C. Force a switch to
revert to a hub
D. Prevent Internet
access to users on a network
1. A(n) _____ is a
general software security update intended to cover vulnerabilities that have
been discovered.
A. service pack
B. hotfix
C. patch
D. critical update
2. Each of the following
is an advantage of an automated patch update service except
A. Users can download the patch immediately when it is
released
B. Bandwidth can be
saved because each computer does not have to connect to an external server
C. Reports can be
obtained regarding what updates each system needs
D. Users cannot
circumvent updates
3. Attackers use
buffer overflows to
A. point to another area in data memory that contains the
attacker’s malware code
B. corrupt the kernel
so the computer cannot reboot
C. place a virus into
the kernel
D. erase buffer
overflow signature files
4. The Windows
application _____ will not allow code in the memory area to be executed.
A. Dynamic Memory
Expansion Restriction (DMER)
B. Buffer Overflow
Prevention (BOP)
C. Execute Bit (EXB)
D. Data Execution Prevention (DEP)
5. Each of the
following is a step that most security organizations take to configure
operating system protection except
A. Develop a security
policy
B. Create
configuration baselines
C. Create security templates
D. Deploy nX randomization
6. A cookie that was
not created by the Web site that attempts to access it is called a(n)
A. first-party cookie
B. second-party cookie
C. third-party
cookie
D. fourth-party cookie
7. _____ resides
inside an HTML document
A. ActiveX
B. JavaScript
C. Java
D. Virtual Machine
(VM)
8. A Java applet _____
is a barrier that surrounds the applet to keep it away from resources on the
local computer.
A. fence
B. sandbox
C. playpen
D. Java Container
Closed Object (JCCO)
9. Address Space
Layout Randomization (ASLR) randomly assigns _____ to one of several possible
locations in memory.
A. executable operating system code
B. xN bits
C. DEP
D. sockets
10. The TCP/IP protocol
_____ handles outgoing mail.
A. Post Office
Protocol (POP)
B. Simple
Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
C. IMAP4
D. Microsoft Mail
Transport (MMT)
11. Instant Messaging
(IM) connects two systems
A. through the IM
server
B. directly without using a server
C. only in a remote
chat session
D. using Internet
Relay Chat (IRC)
12. With a(n) _____
network users do not search for a file but download advertised files.
A. BitTorrent
B. P2P
C. swarm
D. RCIP
13. Another name for
antivirus definition files is
A. signature files
B. virus resource
entities (VRE)
C. AV patches
D. SigDef
14. The preferred
location for an spam filter is
A. on the SMTP server
B. on the POP3 server
C. integrated into the
network firewall
D. on the DHCP client
15. A(n) _____ is a
list of pre-approved e-mail addresses that the user will accept mail from.
A. blacklist
B. client access
account (CAA)
C. whitelist
D. POP3 transfer list
16. Another name for a
packet filter is a(n)
A. firewall
B. HIDS
C. SQL eliminator
D. SIDS
17. A(n) _____ works on
the principle of comparing new behavior against normal behavior.
A. Host
Intrusion Detection System (HIDS)
B. packet filter
C. Internet Resource
Chat (IRC)
D. personal software
firewall
18. A(n) _____ is a
cumulative package of all security updates plus additional features.
A. service
pack
B. update
C. update rollup
D. hotfix patch
19. A(n) _____ is a
method to configure a suite of configuration baseline security settings.
A. security
template
B. group policy
C. snap-out
D. Active Directory
Planner
20. A(n) _____ is a
program that does not come from a trusted source.
A. ActiveX Controller
Entity
B. signed JavaScript
application
C. JavaScript applet
D. unsigned Java applet
Review
Questions
1. A(n) _____ is a
program that secretly attaches itself to a carrier such as a document or
program and then executes when that document is opened or program is launched.
A. virus
B. worm
C. rootkit
D. Trojan
2. The first action
that a virus takes once it infects a computer is to
A. close all ports
B. erase the payload
C. authenticate
D. replicate
3. Each of the
following is a different type of computer virus except
A. file infector virus
B. remote virus
C. resident virus
D. boot virus
4. A computer program
that pretends to clean up a hard drive but actually performs a malicious
activity is known as a(n)
A. Trojan
B. rootkit
C. worm
D. logic bomb
5. To remove a rootkit
from a computer you should
A. erase all files in
the WINNT folder
B. expand the Master
Boot Record
C. reformat the hard drive and reinstall the operating system
D. flash the ROM BIOS
6. Each of the
following could be a logic bomb except
A. Erase all data if
John Smith’s name is removed from the list of employees
B. Reformat the hard
drive three months after Susan Jones left the company
C. Send
spam to all employees
D. If the company’s
stock price drops below $10 then credit Jeff Brown with ten additional years of
retirement credit
7. _____ is a
technique used by spammers to horizontally separate words so they are not
trapped by a filter yet can still be read by the human eye.
A. Word splitting
B. Word layering
C. Parsing
D. Speckling
8. _____ is an image
spam that is divided into multiple images and each piece of the message is
divided and then layered to create a complete and legible message.
A. GIF layering
B. word splitting
C. geometric variance
D. split painting
9. _____ is a general
term used for describing software that violates a user’s personal security.
A. Spamware
B. Warezware
C. Adaware
D. Spyware
10. A(n) _____ is
either a small hardware device or a program that monitors each keystroke a user
types on the computer's keyboard.
A. keylogger
B. macro
C. script kiddie
D. port replicator
11. Attackers use _____
to remotely control zombies.
A. Google
B. e-mail
C. spam
D. Internet
Relay Chat (IRC)
12. On modern computer
systems the BIOS is stored on a _____ chip
A. Silver flash
B. Basic Output/Input
C. Programmable
Read Only Memory (PROM)
D. Read Only Memory
(ROM)
13. Each of the
following is an advantage of a USB device except
A. slower speed
B. nonvolatile
C. better shock
resistance
D. tolerates
temperature extremes
14. _____ is a single,
dedicated hard disk-based file storage device that provides centralized and
consolidated disk storage that is available to users through a standard network
connection.
A. Storage Area
Network (SAN)
B. Network
Attached Storage (NAS)
C. Attached Device
Repository (ADR)
D. Network Data Pool
(NDP)
15. Each of the
following is an attack that can be used against cell phones except
A. Lure users to
malicious websites
B. Infect the cell
phone with malware
C. Attack other cell
phone users
D. Turn off the cell phone
16. The ability to move
a virtual machine from one physical computer to another with no impact on users
is called ____.
A. server balancing
B. VLAN segmentation
C. hypervisor storage
D. live migration
17. The _____ is the
software that runs on a physical computer and manages multiple virtual machine
operating systems.
A. virtual resource
allocator (VRA)
B. hypervisor
C. Microsoft Control
Plug-in
D. hardware allocator
18. _____ is exploiting
a vulnerability in the software to gain access to resources that the user would
normally be restricted from obtaining.
A. Vulnerability
assessment
B. Software threat
release (STR)
C. Hardware virus
D. Privilege
escalation
19. Each of the
following is the reason why adware is scorned except
A. It displays
objectionable content
B. It can cause a
computer to crash or slowdown
C. It can interfere
with a user’s productivity
D. It displays the attackers programming skills
20. An attacker who
controls multiple zombies in a botnet is known as a(n)
A. Bot
herder
B. Zombie shepherd
C. Rogue
IRC
D. Cyber-Robot
1. Each of the
following is a reason why it is difficult to defend against today’s attackers
except _____________ .
A. speed of attacks
B. greater
sophistication of attacks
C. complexity of attack tools
D. delays in patching
hardware and work software products
2. A(n) _____ attack
takes advantage of vulnerabilities that have not been previously revealed.
A. zero day
B. quick vulnerability
assessment (QVA)
C. glamour
D. signature-based
attack
3. _____ ensures that
only authorized parties can view the information.
A. Availability
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
D. ICA
4. Each of the
following is a successive layer in which information security is achieved
except _________________.
A. products
B. people
C. procedures
D. Intrusion Wormhole Defense (IWD)
5. A(n) _____ is a
person or thing that has the power to carry out a threat.
A. vulnerability
B. threat agent
C. exploit
D. risk factor
6. Each of the
following is a goal of information security except __________.
A. Prevent data theft
B. Decrease user productivity
C. Avoid legal
consequences
D. Foil cyberterrorism
7. The _____ requires
that enterprises must guard protected health information and implement policies
and procedures to safeguard it.
A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
(HIPAA)
B. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
(Sarbox)
C. Gramm-Leach-Bliley
Act (GLBA)
D. Hospital Protection
and Insurance Association Agreement (HPIAA)
8. Utility companies,
telecommunications, and financial services are considered prime targets of
_____ because attackers can significantly disrupt business and personal
activities by destroying a few targets.
A. cyberterrorists
B. kiddie scripters
C. computer spies
D. blue hat hackers
(BHH)
9. After an attacker
probed a computer or network for information she would next ________.
A. modify security
settings
B. penetrate any defenses
C. paralyze networks
and devices
D. circulate to other
systems
10. An organization
that purchased security products from different vendors in case an attacker
circumvented the Brand A device, yet would have more difficulty trying to break
through a Brand B device because they are different, is an example of ________.
A. obscurity
B. layering
C. limiting
D. diversity
11. _____ is a superset
of information security and includes security issues that do not involve
computers.
A. Google
reconnaissance
B. Risk security (RS)
C. Information assurance (IA)
D. Asset restriction
(AR)
12. _____ attacks come
from multiple sources instead of a single source.
A. Distributed
B. Isolated
C. Script resource
malware (SRM)
D. Form resource
13. _____ are a
loose-knit network of attackers, identity thieves, and financial fraudsters.
A. Cybercriminals
B. Hackers
C. Spies
D. Script kiddies
14. Each of the
following is a characteristic of cybercriminals except ________.
A. low motivation
B. less risk-averse
C. better funded
D. more tenacious
15. Each of the
following is a characteristic of cybercrime except ________.
A. targeted attacks
against financial networks
B. unauthorized access
to information
C. theft of personal
information
D. exclusive use of worms and viruses
16. An example of a(n)
_____ is a software defect in an operating system that allows an unauthorized
user to gain access to a computer without a password
A. vulnerability
B. threat
C. threat agent
D. asset exploit (AE)
17. _____ requires
banks and financial institutions to alert customers of their policies and
practices in disclosing customer information and to protect all electronic and
paper containing personally identifiable financial information.
A. California
Savings and Loan Security Act (CS&LSA)
B. USA
Patriot Act
C. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
(Sarbox)
D. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
18. The term _____ is
commonly used in a generic sense to identify anyone who illegally breaks into a
computer system.
A. hacker
B. cyberterrorist
C. Internet Exploiter
D. cyberrogue
19. An example of
_____would be not revealing the type of computer, operating system, software,
and network connection a computer uses.
A. diversity
B. limiting
C. obscurity
D. layering
20. The _____ is
primarily responsible for assessment, management, and implementation of
security.
A. Chief
Information Security Officer (CISO)
B. security manager
C. security
administrator
D. security technician
1. The amendment to
add 5.5 Mbps and 11 Mbps to the IEEE 802.11 standard is ______.
A. IEEE 802.11a
B. IEEE 802.11b
C. IEEE 802.11g
D. IEEE 802.11n
2. Access to the
wireless network can be restricted by _______.
A. MAC address filtering
B. ARP resolution
C. TKIP encryption
D. WEP authentication
3. The cyclic
redundancy check (CRC) is also called the _______.
A. integrity check value (ICV)
B. initialized vector
resource (IVR)
C. check parity bit
(CPB)
D. R5C check
4. A wireless network
requires that the _____ be authenticated first.
A. user
B. thick wireless
device
C. wireless device
D. authentication
probe
5. The Service Set
Identifier (SSID) _____.
A. serves as the network name for a WLAN
B. is only used on
IEEE 802.11g networks
C. is optional on all
networks
D. is used only with
closed system authentication
6. The optional
authentication method that forces the wireless device to encrypt challenge text
using its WEP encryption key is known as _____ .
A. WEP encryption
B. shared key authentication
C. challenge text
verification (CTV)
D. AP authentication
(APA)
7. Each of the
following is a weakness of open system authentication except _______.
A. SSIDs are by
default contained in beacon frames to all wireless devices
B. turning off SSIDs
can hinder roaming
C. SSIDs are
transmitted in other management frames sent by the access point
D. open system authentication requires an authentication
server
8. The weakness of WEP
is that _____.
A. it requires the use
of an enhanced access point (EAP) for it to function properly
B. it is costly to
implement
C. the encryption
algorithm has been broken by attackers
D. the initialization vectors (IVs) are repeated
9. The two models for
personal wireless security developed by the Wi-Fi Alliance are Wi-Fi Protected
Access (WPA) and _____ .
A. Protected Wireless
Security (WPS)
B. IEEE 802.11x
C. Postshared Key
Protection (PKP)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
10. The _____ replaces
the cyclic redundancy check (CRC) and is designed to prevent an attacker from
capturing, altering, and resending a data packet.
A. Message Integrity Check (MIC)
B. Cyclic Redundancy
Check 2 (CRC2)
C. Wi-Fi CRC
D. Wireless Parity
Check (WPC)
11. The IEEE standard
for wireless security is known as _____ .
A. IEEE 803.x
B. IEEE Wi-Fi
Protected Access
C. IEEE 802.11i
D. IEEE PSK
12. A(n) _____ is
designed to verify the authentication of wireless devices using IEEE 802.1x.
A. proxy ID server
B. access point server
C. check point server
D. authentication server
13. Wireless switches
are used in conjunction with _____ for increased security by moving security
features to the switch.
A. authentication
access points (AAPs)
B. network intrusion
prevention system (NIPS)
C. access control
appliances (ACA)
D. thin access points
14. Separate _____ can
be used to support low-security guest Internet access and high-security
administrators on the same access point.
A. wireless virtual local area networks (VLANs)
B. segmented access
points
C. separated wireless
streams (SWS)
D. proxy security
servers
15. Each of the
following can be used to monitor airwaves for traffic except a(n) _____.
A. dedicated probe
B. access point probe
C. resource monitor probe
D. wireless device
probe
16. A WEP key that is
128 bits in length _____ .
A. has an initialization vector (IV) that is the same length
as a WEP key of 64 bits
B. is less secure than
a WEP key of 64 bits because shorter keys are better
C. cannot be cracked
because it is too long
D. cannot be used on
access points that use passphrases
17. For a SOHO
the best security model would be the _____
A. Wi-Fi Protected
Access Personal Security model
B. Enterprise
Protection Personal Security model
C. IEEE Wi-Fi Personal
Protection model
D. Wi-Fi
Protected Access 2 Personal Security model
18. Preshared key (PSK)
authentication requires that the encryption key _____.
A. must be entered on all devices prior to wireless
communication occurring
B. be the same length
as the Initialization Vector (IV)
C. be entered in
hexadecimal notation on the access point
D. be encrypted before
it can be entered by a user on a wireless device
19. _____ stores
information from a device on the network so if a user roams away from a
wireless access point and later returns, he does not need to re-enter all of
the credentials.
A. Key-caching
B. Pre-key
authentication
C. Key roaming
D. Security key
resolution
20. The _____ model is
designed for medium to large-size organizations in which an authentication
server is available.
A. IEEE 802.11d
B. Wi-Fi Academic
C. WPA 2 Enterprise
Security
D. Wi-Fi 802.x
|
Hey thanks for this! I'm looking at taking the Sec+ exam between semesters this winter, this is a great study guide!
ReplyDeleteThis comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDelete